Name: __________________________ Date: _____________



1.
Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport?
A.
mild pain in the lower abdomen
B.
severe chest pain and cool, pale skin
C.
decreased ability to move an extremity
D.
responsiveness and ability to follow commands


2.
Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?
A.
evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis
B.
applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2
C.
auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope
D.
looking for the presence of accessory muscle use


3.
Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway?
A.
rales
B.
stridor
C.
crackles
D.
rhonchi


4.
As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:
A.
maintain stabilization of the head.
B.
look in the ears for gross bleeding.
C.
prepare the immobilization equipment.
D.
assess the rest of the body for bleeding.


5.
You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she:
A.
is restless and is working hard to breathe.
B.
has an increased heart rate and retractions.
C.
has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.
D.
is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.


6.
When a patient's respirations are shallow:
A.
chest rise will be easily noticeable.
B.
tidal volume is markedly reduced.
C.
oxygenation occurs more efficiently.
D.
carbon dioxide elimination is increased.


7.
A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should:
A.
apply a cervical collar and suction his airway.
B.
open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C.
apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm.
D.
tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin.


8.
When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:
A.
dilate.
B.
not react.
C.
become larger.
D.
become smaller.


9.
In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the:
A.
forehead.
B.
palms and soles.
C.
chest and abdomen.
D.
underside of the arms.


10.
Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in obvious distress. Your first action should be to:
A.
ask the patient what's wrong.
B.
obtain a set of baseline vital signs.
C.
assess the patient's airway status.
D.
introduce yourself to the patient.


11.
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
A.
a 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
B.
a 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
C.
a 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea
D.
a 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis


12.
You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if:
A.
you note gross deformity to the pelvic area.
B.
the patient does not complain of pelvic pain.
C.
the MOI suggests pelvic trauma.
D.
the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out.


13.
When performing a full-body scan on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last?
A.
abdomen
B.
posterior
C.
extremities
D.
anterior chest


14.
A full-body scan should be performed on:
A.
stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened.
B.
all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.
C.
responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI.
D.
patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.


15.
An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on:
A.
obtaining baseline vital signs.
B.
gathering medical history data.
C.
providing immediate transport.
D.
airway, breathing, and circulation.


16.
When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT's responsibility is to:
A.
direct his or her attention to the most obvious signs and symptoms.
B.
determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life.
C.
definitively rule out serious causes of each of the patient's complaints.
D.
assess each complaint based on the patient's perception of its seriousness.


17.
A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing:
A.
at a normal rate.
B.
with shallow depth.
C.
without difficulty.
D.
without assistance.


18.
You respond to a call for a female pedestrian who has been struck by a car. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a primary assessment. She is unconscious, has ineffective breathing, and has bloody secretions in her mouth. You should:
A.
assist her breathing with a bag-mask device.
B.
quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway.
C.
assess the rate and quality of her pulse.
D.
immediately suction her oropharynx.


19.
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
A.
most life-threatening condition that you discover.
B.
condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
C.
most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
D.
gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.


20.
A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called:
A.
crepitus
B.
rhonchi.
C.
Korotkoff sounds.
D.
subcutaneous emphysema.


21.
The diastolic pressure represents the:
A.
average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle.
B.
minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.
C.
increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction.
D.
difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation.


22.
Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall?
A.
multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall
B.
a marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing
C.
only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls
D.
one side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other


23.
Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function?
A.
Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed.
B.
Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced.
C.
Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly.
D.
Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light.


24.
Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the “M” in the SAMPLE history?
A.
“Have you ever had any major surgeries?”
B.
“How long have you had your chest pain?”
C.
“How much Tylenol do you take each day?”
D.
“When was the last time you ate a meal?”


25.
When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:
A.
apply a cardiac monitor and observe her cardiac rhythm.
B.
transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.
C.
document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.
D.
conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.


26.
Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that:
A.
worsen the pain.
B.
alleviate the pain.
C.
initiate the pain.
D.
change the pain.


27.
Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
shallow chest movement.
B.
use of accessory muscles.
C.
supraclavicular retractions.
D.
gasping attempts to breathe.


28.
Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?
A.
audible breathing
B.
forceful coughing
C.
inspiratory stridor
D.
unresponsiveness


29.
If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient, you should:
A.
attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) at once.
B.
immediately begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
C.
palpate at another pulse site.
D.
assess for adequate breathing.


30.
When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:
A.
pulse pressure.
B.
systolic blood pressure.
C.
diastolic blood pressure.
D.
cardiac output pressure.


31.
A palpable pulse is created by:
A.
the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
B.
the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
C.
pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
D.
electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.


32.
The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from:
A.
10 to 15 breaths per minute.
B.
12 to 20 breaths per minute.
C.
18 to 24 breaths per minute.
D.
24 to 28 breaths per minute.


33.
Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse?
A.
Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure.
B.
Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.
C.
Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating.
D.
Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.


34.
In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:
A.
back of the neck.
B.
forehead and face.
C.
dorsum of the hand.
D.
lips or oral mucosa.


35.
While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should:
A.
ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator.
B.
confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.
C.
request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival.
D.
proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival.


36.
Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:
A.
pink, warm, and dry.
B.
pale, cool, and moist.
C.
pink, warm, and moist.
D.
flushed, cool, and dry.


37.
Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear:
A.
pink.
B.
ashen.
C.
flushed.
D.
cyanotic.


38.
You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused, is in obvious respiratory distress, and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate livesaving treatment, you should:
A.
perform a rapid scan of her entire body and prepare for immediate transport.
B.
assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately.
C.
fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs.
D.
identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas.


39.
When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should:
A.
count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy.
B.
count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four.
C.
count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two.
D.
count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.


40.
Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
A.
A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.
B.
The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.
C.
The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI.
D.
A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.


41.
When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by:
A.
repeating statements back to him or her.
B.
using medical terminology whenever possible.
C.
maintaining constant eye contact with him or her.
D.
interrupting him or her as needed for clarification.


42.
When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to:
A.
wiggle his or her toes on command.
B.
feel you touching the extremity.
C.
note any changes in temperature.
D.
identify different types of stimuli.


43.
A patient who does not respond to your questions but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be:
A.
conscious and alert.
B.
completely unresponsive.
C.
responsive to verbal stimuli.
D.
responsive to painful stimuli.


44.
In responsive patients that are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery.
A.
radial
B.
carotid
C.
brachial
D.
femoral


45.
A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:
A.
two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease in the elbow.
B.
one half the length between the armpit to the crease in the elbow.
C.
one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.
D.
the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.


46.
When performing a full-body scan on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle's sign. This is defined as:
A.
unequal pupils.
B.
bruising behind the ear.
C.
swelling to the orbital area.
D.
fluid drainage from the nose.


47.
Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:
A.
increased blood oxygen.
B.
peripheral vasodilation.
C.
venous vasoconstriction.
D.
decreased blood oxygen.


48.
The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to:
A.
perform a careful and thorough assessment.
B.
establish the patient's medical history early.
C.
take note of the patient's general appearance.
D.
ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient.


49.
Supplemental oxygen via nonrebreathing mask should be administered to patients:
A.
who are semiconscious with shallow respirations.
B.
with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume.
C.
who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing.
D.
with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.


50.
An unstable patient should be reassessed at least every:
A.
5 minutes.
B.
10 minutes.
C.
15 minutes.
D.
20 minutes.


51.
You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:
A.
immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.
B.
direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.
C.
document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.
D.
position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.


52.
The full-body scan of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than:
A.
30 seconds.
B.
60 to 90 seconds.
C.
90 to 120 seconds.
D.
120 to 180 seconds.


53.
With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in:
A.
children who are younger than 6 years of age.
B.
patients who are significantly hypotensive.
C.
children who are older than 6 years of age.
D.
patients with decreased peripheral perfusion.


54.
Typical methods of assessing a patient's breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
listening to breath sounds with a stethoscope.
B.
observing for nasal flaring during inhalation.
C.
observing the chest for adequate rise and fall.
D.
quickly scanning the chest for obvious movement.


55.
When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by:
A.
constricting.
B.
enlarging.
C.
dilating.
D.
fluttering.


56.
In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified?
A.
A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse.
B.
A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times.
C.
A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts every time she takes a deep breath.
D.
A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.


57.
A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:
A.
weak.
B.
strong.
C.
regular.
D.
irregular.


58.
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
A.
drug overdose
B.
inadequate perfusion
C.
acute anxiety
D.
poisoning


59.
An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will:
A.
be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.
B.
assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.
C.
exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs.
D.
have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.


60.
If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately:
A.
determine his or her respiratory rate.
B.
begin assisting his or her breathing.
C.
reevaluate his or her airway status.
D.
auscultate his or her breath sounds.


61.
The “Golden Period” begins when an injury occurs and ends when:
A.
the patient receives definitive care.
B.
the patient is admitted to the ICU.
C.
you depart the scene for the hospital.
D.
you arrive at the emergency department.


62.
Which of the following patients does NOT have an altered mental status?
A.
a patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness
B.
a diabetic who opens his eyes when you ask questions
C.
a patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions
D.
a patient who overdosed and moans when he is touched


63.
An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
A.
opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain
B.
opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
C.
opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion
D.
eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension


64.
Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation?
A.
“Does the pain stay in your chest?”
B.
“Does your mother have diabetes?”
C.
“Has this ever happened to you before?”
D.
“Are there medications that you cannot take?”


65.
During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude that his:
A.
respiratory status is adequate.
B.
systolic blood pressure is normal.
C.
peripheral circulation is decreased.
D.
skin temperature is abnormally cold.


66.
Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be:
A.
radiating.
B.
referred.
C.
palliating.
D.
provoking.


67.
The goal of the primary assessment is to:
A.
determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma.
B.
identify patients that require transport to a trauma center.
C.
determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment.
D.
identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.


68.
A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being:
A.
flushed.
B.
plethoric.
C.
diaphoretic.
D.
edematous.


69.
After performing a head tilt–chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should:
A.
place him or her in the recovery position.
B.
provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance.
C.
assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity.
D.
suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.


70.
After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to:
A.
determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.
B.
identify less obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.
C.
look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.
D.
find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.


71.
Which of the following patient responses would establish the “E” in the SAMPLE history?
A.
“I was in the hospital a week ago.”
B.
“I am not having any difficulty breathing.”
C.
“The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago.”
D.
“I was mowing the lawn when the pain began.”


72.
A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT should:
A.
wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions.
B.
defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital.
C.
determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.
D.
ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient.


73.
A decrease in the blood pressure may indicate:
A.
a loss of vascular tone.
B.
arterial constriction.
C.
increased blood volume.
D.
forceful cardiac contraction.


74.
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
A.
tongue-jaw lift
B.
jaw-thrust maneuver
C.
head tilt–chin lift
D.
head tilt–neck lift


75.
What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have?
A.
history taking
B.
general impression
C.
primary assessment
D.
secondary assessment


76.
During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times.
A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
6


77.
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause the pupils to remain significantly constricted?
A.
severe cerebral hypoxia
B.
intracranial hemorrhaging
C.
overdose of an opiate drug
D.
oculomotor nerve pressure


78.
Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?
A.
The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.
B.
Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion.
C.
Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion.
D.
Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.


79.
Which of the following statements regarding stridor is MOST correct?
A.
It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway.
B.
It is caused by incorrect airway positioning.
C.
It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.
D.
It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs.


80.
When assessing the skin of an unconscious patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called:
A.
pallor.
B.
flushing.
C.
cyanosis.
D.
mottling.


81.
You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is “sick.” When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to:
A.
apply a pulse oximeter.
B.
request a paramedic unit.
C.
provide assisted ventilation.
D.
assess his blood pressure.


82.
During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing:
A.
skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill.
B.
pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.
C.
blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding.
D.
external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill.


83.
When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is:
A.
slow.
B.
rapid.
C.
irregular.
D.
thready.


84.
The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the:
A.
percentage of red blood cells.
B.
effectiveness of oxygenation.
C.
saturation level of venous blood.
D.
amount of exhaled carbon dioxide.


85.
While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the:
A.
atria relaxing.
B.
atria contracting.
C.
ventricles relaxing.
D.
ventricles contracting.


86.
In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min.
A.
60, 100
B.
50, 110
C.
40, 120
D.
30, 130


87.
You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should:
A.
start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.
B.
ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease.
C.
perform CPR and transport the patient immediately.
D.
notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.


88.
When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene?
A.
after you have triaged all the critical patients
B.
when you determine there are multiple patients
C.
after noncritical patients have been identified
D.
when all the deceased patients are accounted for


89.
Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
the reason why the patient called EMS.
B.
the patient's response to your treatment.
C.
whether or not the patient is deteriorating.
D.
the nature of any newly identified problems.


90.
When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:
A.
obtain updated vital signs.
B.
reassess your interventions.
C.
repeat the primary assessment.
D.
confirm medical history findings.


91.
A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is:
A.
flushed and red.
B.
mottled and cool.
C.
pale and moist.
D.
cyanotic and dry.


92.
External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled by a combination of:
A.
direct pressure and elevation.
B.
direct pressure and a tourniquet.
C.
elevation and chemical ice packs.
D.
elevation and pressure point control.


93.
Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
appearance.
B.
pulse strength.
C.
race and gender.
D.
level of distress.


94.
The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:
A.
blood pressure.
B.
systolic pressure.
C.
diastolic pressure.
D.
pulse pressure.


95.
After the first 60 minutes of experiencing a significant injury:
A.
the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly.
B.
the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable.
C.
most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding.
D.
the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.


96.
Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint?
A.
“What seems to be the matter?”
B.
“When did the chest pain begin?”
C.
“Are you having trouble breathing?”
D.
“Do you have a history of diabetes?”


97.
A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect:
A.
acute pancreatitis.
B.
liver dysfunction.
C.
gallbladder disease.
D.
renal insufficiency.


98.
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
A.
cyanosis
B.
headache
C.
tachycardia
D.
hypertension


99.
For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between:
A.
50 and 60 beats/min.
B.
50 and 70 beats/min.
C.
60 and 100 beats/min.
D.
70 and 110 beats/min.


100.
A low ETCO2 reading, as measured by capnography, would MOST likely be observed if:
A.
a patient in cardiac arrest is receiving high-quality CPR.
B.
an endotracheal (ET) tube is correctly placed in the trachea.
C.
there is an absence or decrease in the level of CO2 in the lungs.
D.
the cells produce large amounts of CO2 and return it to the lungs.



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