Name: __________________________ Date: _____________



1.
If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the EMT should:
A.
locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.
B.
begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones.
C.
remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task.
D.
contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions.


2.
Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct?
A.
Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes.
B.
Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.
C.
Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles.
D.
The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion.


3.
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT:
A.
the type of call.
B.
the location type.
C.
weather conditions.
D.
victim's statements.


4.
Most cases of anthrax begin with:
A.
signs of shock.
B.
pulmonary edema.
C.
flulike symptoms.
D.
respiratory distress.


5.
The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the:
A.
skin.
B.
nervous system.
C.
vascular system.
D.
respiratory tract.


6.
The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired effect, is called:
A.
potentiation.
B.
alkalinization.
C.
dissemination.
D.
weaponization.


7.
When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to:
A.
a nerve agent.
B.
sarin or soman.
C.
a vesicant agent.
D.
phosgene or chlorine.


8.
The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is:
A.
beta.
B.
alpha.
C.
gamma.
D.
neutron.


9.
Most terrorist attacks are:
A.
covert.
B.
impulsive.
C.
unplanned.
D.
nuclear attacks.


10.
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should:
A.
carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately.
B.
ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building.
C.
take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients.
D.
tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist.


11.
The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the:
A.
type of material used to manufacture the device.
B.
pressure that is generated from the explosion itself.
C.
patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.
D.
size of the structure that was involved in the explosion.


12.
All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT:
A.
ricin.
B.
smallpox.
C.
pneumonic plague.
D.
inhalation anthrax.


13.
You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The MOST appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to:
A.
use a bag-mask device.
B.
perform mouth-to-mask ventilations.
C.
request a paramedic unit to intubate.
D.
perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations.


14.
Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins:
A.
cause high fever.
B.
are not contagious.
C.
cause skin blistering.
D.
have a slow onset of symptoms.


15.
The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called:
A.
incubation.
B.
aerosolization.
C.
weaponization.
D.
dissemination.


16.
Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds?
A.
hydrogen cyanide
B.
phosgene oxime
C.
organophosphates
D.
carbon monoxide


17.
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should:
A.
apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
B.
position him supine and elevate his legs.
C.
request a paramedic to administer atropine.
D.
assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen.


18.
Which of the following terrorist groups poses the LEAST threat to a person's physical safety?
A.
doomsday cults
B.
single-issue groups
C.
technology terrorists
D.
extremist political groups


19.
Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include:
A.
fever and headache.
B.
joint pain and bradycardia.
C.
liver necrosis and diarrhea.
D.
dehydration and convulsions.


20.
Most terrorist attacks:
A.
are carried out by fewer than three people.
B.
occur within the continental United States.
C.
involve the use of nuclear explosive devices.
D.
require multiple terrorists working together.


21.
You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she did not think it was important. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to:
A.
Ebola.
B.
anthrax.
C.
botulinum.
D.
a neurotoxin.


22.
A disease vector is defined as:
A.
the spectrum of signs that define a disease.
B.
any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.
C.
the period of time between exposure and illness.
D.
the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread.


23.
Unlike bacterial agents, viral agents:
A.
are far less infectious.
B.
respond to antibiotics.
C.
are usually not treatable.
D.
do not replicate in the body.


24.
When introduced into the body, ricin causes:
A.
intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis.
B.
enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain.
C.
pulmonary edema and circulatory failure.
D.
necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction.


25.
The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is:
A.
miosis.
B.
a red rash.
C.
bradycardia.
D.
skin blistering.


26.
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because:
A.
terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.
B.
the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile.
C.
other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons.
D.
all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.


27.
A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent can:
A.
evaporate quickly when left on a surface.
B.
remain on a surface for more than 24 hours.
C.
explode without warning and releases gases.
D.
remain in the environment for many weeks.


28.
The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n):
A.
violent religious group.
B.
extremist political group.
C.
single-issue terrorist group.
D.
group of domestic terrorists.


29.
According to the Department of Homeland Security Security Advisory System, the color orange indicates a _______ risk of terrorist attacks.
A.
low
B.
high
C.
severe
D.
general


30.
Which of the following statements regarding a “dirty bomb” is correct?
A.
The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits.
B.
Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.
C.
Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile.
D.
The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD.


31.
Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent?
A.
phosgene
B.
soman
C.
lewisite
D.
chlorine


32.
Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where:
A.
weapons of mass destruction are distributed.
B.
chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled.
C.
antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.
D.
chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed.


33.
Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to:
A.
become thick and spontaneously clot.
B.
seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.
C.
attack the bone marrow and destroy cells.
D.
engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging.


34.
Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct?
A.
Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates.
B.
Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate.
C.
Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form.
D.
There is presently no vaccine against anthrax.


35.
To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been:
A.
nuclear weapons.
B.
chemical weapons.
C.
biologic weapons.
D.
explosive weapons.


36.
A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
A.
smallpox.
B.
sarin toxicity.
C.
yellow fever virus.
D.
cutaneous anthrax.


37.
The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of:
A.
domestic terrorism.
B.
apocalyptic violence.
C.
an ecoterrorist attack.
D.
state-sponsored terrorism.


38.
All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT:
A.
sarin.
B.
lewisite.
C.
sulfur mustard.
D.
phosgene oxime.


39.
__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require several inches of lead or concrete to prevent penetration.
A.
Beta
B.
Alpha
C.
Neutron
D.
Gamma


40.
A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as:
A.
a device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a given geographic location.
B.
any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.
C.
a nuclear or chemical weapon that can be launched from one country to another country.
D.
any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage in an effort to make a particular point.


41.
As the first arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or WMD incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then:
A.
remain where you are until additional ambulances arrive at the scene.
B.
function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.
C.
direct your partner to begin triaging patients as you call medical control.
D.
carefully inspect the area for the presence of secondary explosive devices.


42.
Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for these patients includes:
A.
amyl nitrate and naloxone.
B.
activated charcoal and glucose.
C.
atropine and pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM).
D.
epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen.


43.
Cross-contamination occurs when:
A.
an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated.
B.
two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated.
C.
an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident.
D.
an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.


44.
Which of the following statements regarding the persistency and volatility of a chemical agent is correct?
A.
Sarin, a powerful nerve agent, is nonvolatile and can remain on a surface for long periods.
B.
Sulfur mustard, a vesicant agent, is generally considered to have a low level of persistence.
C.
Lewisite, a vesicant agent, is nonvolatile and evaporates quickly in an optimum temperature.
D.
VX, a highly persistent nerve agent, can remain in the environment for weeks to months.


45.
Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
body aches.
B.
skin blisters.
C.
high fever.
D.
headaches.


STOP This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your answers, press the button below to grade the test.