Name: __________________________ Date: _____________



1.
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
A.
are found supine and have stable vital signs.
B.
are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
C.
require prompt extrication from an automobile.
D.
are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.


2.
A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing:
A.
retrograde amnesia.
B.
anterograde amnesia.
C.
perigrade amnesia.
D.
posttraumatic amnesia.


3.
Which of the following skull fractures would be the LEAST likely to present with palpable deformity or other outward signs?
A.
linear
B.
basilar
C.
open
D.
compressed


4.
Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing's triad?
A.
blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min
B.
blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min
C.
blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min
D.
blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min


5.
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
mastoid process bruising.
B.
ecchymosis around the eyes.
C.
noted deformity to the skull.
D.
superficial scalp lacerations.


6.
Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless:
A.
the patient adamantly denies neck pain.
B.
lateral immobilization has been applied.
C.
it causes a problem managing the ABCs.
D.
sensory and motor functions remain intact.


7.
Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another?
A.
somatic
B.
connecting
C.
peripheral
D.
autonomic


8.
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?
A.
central
B.
sensory
C.
somatic
D.
autonomic


9.
Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord?
A.
motor
B.
central
C.
somatic
D.
sensory


10.
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:
A.
spinal canal.
B.
vertebral body.
C.
vertebral arch.
D.
intervertebral disc.


11.
The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by:
A.
immediate reassessment following the intervention.
B.
a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician.
C.
reassessing the patient's blood pressure after at least 10 minutes.
D.
noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations.


12.
The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems.
A.
brain stem
B.
cerebellum
C.
spinal cord
D.
cerebral cortex


13.
During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should:
A.
assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
B.
suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.
C.
immobilize his spine and transport immediately.
D.
pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.


14.
When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
A.
pupillary constriction.
B.
increase in heart rate.
C.
shunting of blood to vital organs.
D.
dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.


15.
Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct?
A.
It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head.
B.
Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury.
C.
Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.
D.
Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.


16.
During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should:
A.
perform a focused secondary assessment of the patient's head and neck.
B.
instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.
C.
apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs.
D.
immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport.


17.
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the:
A.
pia mater.
B.
arachnoid.
C.
gray mater.
D.
dura mater.


18.
Lacerations to the scalp:
A.
bleed minimally because the scalp has few vessels.
B.
uncommonly cause hypovolemic shock in children.
C.
may be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
D.
are most commonly associated with skull fractures.


19.
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
constricted pupils.
B.
combative behavior.
C.
CSF leakage from the ears.
D.
decreased sensory function.


20.
When assessing a conscious patient with an MOI that suggests spinal injury, you should:
A.
determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.
B.
rule out a spinal injury if the patient denies neck pain.
C.
defer spinal immobilization if the patient is ambulatory.
D.
ask the patient to move his or her head to assess for pain.


21.
The _________ nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
A.
central
B.
somatic
C.
autonomic
D.
peripheral


22.
When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should:
A.
secure the head prior to securing the torso and legs.
B.
defer cervical collar placement to avoid discomfort.
C.
place the child's head in a slightly extended position.
D.
place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.


23.
A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n):
A.
cerebral contusion.
B.
cerebral concussion.
C.
intracranial hemorrhage.
D.
intracerebral hematoma.


24.
The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is:
A.
a pulse that is rapid and thready.
B.
a decreased level of consciousness.
C.
an abnormally low blood pressure.
D.
decreased sensation in the extremities.


25.
Moderate elevation in intracranial pressure with middle brain stem involvement is characterized by:
A.
increased blood pressure, bradycardia, reactive pupils, and rapid respirations.
B.
sluggishly reactive pupils, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and posturing.
C.
ataxic respirations, unequal pupils, no response to pain, and an irregular pulse.
D.
fixed and dilated pupils, decreased blood pressure, and irregular respirations.


26.
After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should:
A.
apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar.
B.
assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.
C.
thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities.
D.
use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.


27.
A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in tidal volume. The MOST appropriate airway management for her includes:
A.
hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min.
B.
administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C.
ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%.
D.
assisting ventilations at an age-appropriate rate.


28.
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless:
A.
it interferes with your assessment of the airway.
B.
the patient must be placed onto a long backboard.
C.
the patient complains of severe neck or back pain.
D.
the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor.


29.
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
A.
the clothes drag.
B.
the four-person log roll.
C.
to use a scoop stretcher.
D.
the direct patient carry.


30.
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
A.
thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral.
B.
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
C.
coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
D.
cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.


31.
Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct?
A.
Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose.
B.
In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs.
C.
The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out.
D.
They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head.


32.
Coordination of balance and body movement is controlled by the:
A.
medulla.
B.
cerebrum.
C.
cerebellum.
D.
brain stem.


33.
An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as:
A.
bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
B.
bleeding between the dura mater and brain.
C.
venous lacerations that occur within the brain.
D.
an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.


34.
When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she:
A.
will likely be paralyzed from the neck down.
B.
may lose sensation below the level of the injury.
C.
most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity.
D.
often loses motor function on one side of the body.


35.
When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should:
A.
have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps.
B.
secure the torso and then center the patient on the board.
C.
follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso.
D.
ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.


36.
The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _________ nervous system.
A.
sensory
B.
somatic
C.
autonomic
D.
voluntary


37.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:
A.
mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate.
B.
sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate.
C.
verbal response, eye opening, and mental status.
D.
eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.


38.
A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response?
A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
5


39.
Distraction injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of:
A.
falls.
B.
diving.
C.
hangings.
D.
compression.


40.
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is:
A.
insulin.
B.
thyroxine.
C.
epinephrine.
D.
aldosterone.


41.
It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who:
A.
fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position.
B.
was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash.
C.
has blood draining from the ears following a head injury.
D.
struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.


42.
The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume.
A.
cerebrum
B.
cerebellum
C.
brain stem
D.
meninges


43.
Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is correct?
A.
Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization.
B.
A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization.
C.
Cervical collars are contraindicated in patients with numbness to the extremities.
D.
The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar.


44.
The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by:
A.
regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged.
B.
acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.
C.
delivering oxygen directly to the CNS.
D.
producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.


45.
If you do not have the appropriate size cervical collar, you should:
A.
use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head.
B.
place sandbags on either side of the patient's head.
C.
ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position.
D.
defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks.


46.
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the:
A.
cerebellum and brain.
B.
brain and spinal cord.
C.
cerebrum and meninges.
D.
meninges and spinal cord.


47.
Which of the following statements regarding the cranium is correct?
A.
The skull is a subdivision of the cranium.
B.
Thirty percent of the cranium is occupied by blood.
C.
The cranium protects the structures of the face.
D.
Eighty percent of the cranium is occupied by brain tissue.


48.
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12′,landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:
A.
obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen.
B.
immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.
C.
allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable.
D.
perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine.


49.
An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
A.
a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
B.
a progressively lowering blood pressure.
C.
an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate.
D.
acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.


50.
Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n):
A.
epidural hematoma.
B.
intracerebral hematoma.
C.
subdural hematoma.
D.
intracranial hematoma.


51.
When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar:
A.
after the torso has been adequately secured.
B.
after moving the patient to a long backboard.
C.
after assessing distal neurovascular functions.
D.
before manually stabilizing the patient's head.


52.
Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly?
A.
cerebral contusion
B.
subdural hematoma
C.
cerebral concussion
D.
epidural hematoma


53.
When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient's _________ is in charge of all patient movements.
A.
head
B.
chest
C.
waist
D.
lower extremities


54.
When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until:
A.
an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied.
B.
the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher.
C.
the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization.
D.
the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.


55.
The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae.
A.
5
B.
6
C.
7
D.
8



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