Name: __________________________ Date: _____________



1.
Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include:
A.
fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing.
B.
crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness.
C.
headache, low back pain, and arm numbness.
D.
joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision.


2.
An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
A.
the EMT's prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched.
B.
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
C.
ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms.
D.
determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms.


3.
A patient who was bitten by a mosquito and presents with signs and symptoms of illness should be suspected of having:
A.
avian flu.
B.
hantavirus.
C.
West Nile virus.
D.
lyme disease.


4.
Syphilis is a:
A.
high-risk disease to the EMT, especially through a needlestick.
B.
bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin.
C.
sexually transmitted disease that is only found in vaginal secretions.
D.
bacterial infection that is typically resistant to antibiotic medications.


5.
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
A.
you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.
B.
the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
C.
you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
D.
you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.


6.
Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:
A.
perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment.
B.
assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.
C.
retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.
D.
administer oxygen with the appropriate device.


7.
The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:
A.
once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.
B.
after the primary assessment has been completed.
C.
upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
D.
as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.


8.
Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct?
A.
SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure.
B.
Most cases of SARS are caused by a bacterium that is spread from person to person via direct contact with infected blood.
C.
SARS is caused by a virus that occurs naturally in the bird population, although it usually does not cause illness in humans.
D.
Although SARS can cause pneumonia and other respiratory infections, it rarely causes death, even in immunocompromised patients.


9.
Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should:
A.
assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate.
B.
squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds.
C.
attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.
D.
direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.


10.
Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness?
A.
trending of the patient's vital signs over time
B.
asking questions related to the chief complaint
C.
refraining from asking open-ended questions
D.
focusing solely on how the call is dispatched


11.
Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
A.
depression
B.
schizophrenia
C.
substance abuse
D.
Alzheimer's disease


12.
The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or “labeling” a patient who frequently calls EMS is:
A.
overlooking a potentially serious medical condition.
B.
making the entire EMS system look unprofessional.
C.
demeaning or humiliating the patient and his family.
D.
discouraging the patient from calling EMS in the future.


13.
When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should:
A.
focus on his or her chief complaint.
B.
examine him or her from head to toe.
C.
prepare the patient for transport first.
D.
only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.


14.
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:
A.
is less resistant to treatment.
B.
is a more contagious type of disease.
C.
has a greater ability to produce disease.
D.
leads to chronic infection after exposure.


15.
When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:
A.
the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.
B.
it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.
C.
most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.
D.
the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.


16.
When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:
A.
limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
B.
perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.
C.
transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.
D.
have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.


17.
The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:
A.
typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control.
B.
focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made.
C.
addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process.
D.
involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital.


18.
In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve:
A.
palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time.
B.
taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused.
C.
applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate.
D.
checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or her skin.


19.
In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis:
A.
is not a communicable disease.
B.
typically does not cause yellow skin.
C.
is a far more transmittable disease.
D.
can be prevented with a vaccination.


20.
In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?
A.
recent travel
B.
HIV status
C.
sexual practices
D.
drug allergies


21.
Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital?
A.
seizures and infection
B.
cardiac arrest and shock
C.
stroke and heart attack
D.
diabetes and migraines


22.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
A.
contact medical control.
B.
take standard precautions.
C.
quickly access the patient.
D.
notify law enforcement.


23.
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
A.
reassessing the nature of illness.
B.
taking another set of vital signs.
C.
repeating the primary assessment.
D.
reviewing all treatment performed.


24.
A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you that he does. You should:
A.
avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once.
B.
ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.
C.
recall that erectile dysfunction drugs can cause hypertension if given with nitroglycerin.
D.
administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure.


25.
You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
A.
perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.
B.
manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.
C.
administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
D.
load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.


26.
Which of the following statements regarding the H1N1 virus is correct?
A.
H1N1 has caused more deaths worldwide than all of the other strains of influenza combined.
B.
Unlike other strains of the influenza virus, H1N1 is primarily transmitted via the fecal-oral route.
C.
It is only one type of influenza among the many other strains of influenza that exist and infect humans.
D.
H1N1, also known as the “swine flu,” is a newly discovered strain of influenza for which no vaccine exists.


27.
Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
loss of appetite and a cough.
B.
vomiting, fever, and fatigue.
C.
pain in the muscles and joints.
D.
jaundice and abdominal pain.


28.
End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with:
A.
a headache.
B.
abdominal pain.
C.
high blood pressure.
D.
respiratory distress.


29.
Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:
A.
cough.
B.
vomit.
C.
are bleeding.
D.
have a fever.


30.
Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct?
A.
Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.
B.
Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate.
C.
Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids.
D.
Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful.


31.
In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
A.
almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem.
B.
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.
C.
requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems.
D.
is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.


32.
Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem?
A.
unequal breath sounds
B.
jugular venous distention
C.
use of the accessory muscles
D.
palpable pain to the epigastrium


33.
A 33-year-old female presents with lower abdominal quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert, but in moderate pain. While your partner is asking her questions about her medical history, you take her vital signs. When you assess her radial pulse, you are unable to locate it. You should:
A.
assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse.
B.
advise your partner that the patient's blood pressure is low.
C.
immediately take her blood pressure to see if she is hypotensive.
D.
conclude that she is perfusing adequately since she is conscious.


34.
Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct?
A.
Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick.
B.
MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.
C.
The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.
D.
Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers.


35.
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
A.
any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.
B.
the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.
C.
a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.
D.
a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body.


36.
When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to:
A.
document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced.
B.
take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report.
C.
send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them.
D.
let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications.


37.
Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include:
A.
prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B.
failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis.
C.
a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks.
D.
prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.


38.
It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem.
A.
cardiac
B.
endocrine
C.
respiratory
D.
neurologic


39.
The secondary assessment of a medical patient:
A.
should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe.
B.
should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill.
C.
is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
D.
is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.


40.
Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct?
A.
HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting.
B.
The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin.
C.
The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.
D.
Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity.



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