Name: __________________________ Date: _____________



1.
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
A.
a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
B.
a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
C.
a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients
D.
a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients


2.
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:
A.
state office of EMS.
B.
regional trauma center.
C.
American Heart Association.
D.
National Registry of EMTs.


3.
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
A.
EMT.
B.
paramedic.
C.
advanced EMT (AEMT).
D.
EMR.


4.
EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the:
A.
National Registry of EMTs.
B.
individual state's EMS protocols.
C.
National Association of EMTs.
D.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).


5.
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
A.
assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
B.
insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids.
C.
administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.
D.
interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.


6.
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:
A.
EMT.
B.
paramedic.
C.
AEMT.
D.
EMR.


7.
The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include:
A.
demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds.
B.
proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
C.
a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care.
D.
successful completion of a recognized bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) course.


8.
If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:
A.
wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class.
B.
send an official request to the National Registry of EMT (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam.
C.
recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure.
D.
contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.


9.
Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?
A.
The ADA only applies to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability.
B.
The requirements to successfully complete an EMT program are different for those who are disabled.
C.
The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to the disabled.
D.
According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.


10.
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:
A.
the patient's condition.
B.
your local EMS protocols.
C.
an order from a paramedic.
D.
the transport time to the hospital.


11.
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to:
A.
perform blood glucose monitoring.
B.
apply and interpret a pulse oximeter.
C.
use an automatic transport ventilator.
D.
give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.


12.
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?
A.
The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.
B.
EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT.
C.
The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.
D.
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.


13.
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?
A.
a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device
B.
a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia
C.
a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle
D.
a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED)


14.
Laypeople are often trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT:
A.
one- or two-rescuer CPR.
B.
splinting of a possible fracture.
C.
insertion of an oropharyngeal airway.
D.
control of life-threatening bleeding.


15.
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?
A.
oral glucose for hypoglycemia
B.
AED
C.
intranasal medication administration
D.
use of a manually triggered ventilator


16.
EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because:
A.
they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures.
B.
the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured.
C.
the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes.
D.
they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival.


17.
Which of the following is a unique function of the emergency medical dispatcher (EMD)?
A.
relaying relevant information to the EMTs
B.
directing the ambulance to the correct address
C.
obtaining patient information from the caller
D.
providing callers with life-saving instructions


18.
The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation.
A.
human resources department
B.
office of the medical director
C.
EMS administrator or chief
D.
local public health department


19.
The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:
A.
shift supervisor.
B.
medical director.
C.
EMS administrator.
D.
field training officer.


20.
Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct?
A.
The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval.
B.
The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval.
C.
An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director.
D.
An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.


21.
What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?
A.
radio
B.
online
C.
off-line
D.
direct


22.
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
A.
provide punitive action to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.
B.
identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
C.
ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.
D.
focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.


23.
Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?
A.
An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so.
B.
Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.
C.
A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.
D.
An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.


24.
Continuing education in EMS serves to:
A.
prove research and statistical findings in prehospital care.
B.
maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
C.
enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training.
D.
provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.


25.
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
A.
individual EMT.
B.
State Bureau of EMS.
C.
EMS training officer.
D.
EMS medical director.


26.
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?
A.
community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
B.
the construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash
C.
protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height
D.
teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR


27.
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on:
A.
EMS research.
B.
local protocols.
C.
the lead EMT's decision.
D.
regional trauma guidelines.


28.
Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis?
A.
Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness.
B.
EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis.
C.
Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.
D.
The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years.


29.
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:
A.
avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic.
B.
recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives.
C.
purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim.
D.
determine which device the American Heart Association suggests.


30.
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
A.
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
B.
demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport.
C.
ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
D.
reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.


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